From: clayton stirling bartholomew (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Mar 30 2000 - 17:55:00 EST
on 03/28/00 9:03 PM, Joe A. Friberg wrote:
> Now I have a question: what is the *source* of Mk's (and Jn's) syntax? Is
> it Aramaic, as Nigel Turner _Style_ p.12, and others have suggested?
I would not risk making a general statement on this topic, but will point
that A.T. Robertson in his venerable yellow door stop (p. 428 bottom) states
concerning Mk 2:11 EGEIRE ARON:
"This use of AGE is common in the old Greek
(Gildersleeve, Greek Syntax p. 29)."
I would take this as a cautionary note concerning using Aramaic influence
as an explanation for this particular construction. On the broader topic of
Aramaic syntax in Mark and John and the Apocalypse and elsewhere, I am
somewhat of an agnostic. The more I read on the topic the more agnostic I
Note my use of polysyndeton:
. . . Aramaic syntax in Mark and John and the Apocalypse and elsewhere . . .
Perhaps my syntax has been influenced by reading too much LXX Greek or
W. Faulkner or E. Hemingway or V. Woolf or Ann Morrow Lindbergh or
L. Fernlingetti. Perhaps I just like to use conjunctions because of the
sound it makes when read aloud. Who knows?
Thanks again for your help with this question.
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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