Re: Greek conditionals

From: Harold R. Holmyard III (
Date: Fri Mar 31 2000 - 10:38:16 EST

Dear Kimmo,
     You write:
"To me it seems that in 1st class conditions there is hardly any
discernible assertion made even for the sake of argument. If it asserted,
or even presupposed, something for the sake of argument, the
expression of opposite cases with first class conditions would hardly have
textual fit (e.g. Matt.12:27-28)."

I must not be following you, because I do not see any problem with
regarding both "if" clauses in Matt 12:27-28 as assertions made for the
sake of argument. Jesus presents one condition, and its implication (v.
27). Having suggested the falseness of that condition, He offers the
alternative condition, with its implication (v. 28).

                                        Harold Holmyard

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