From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (mauros@iol.ie)
Date: Sun Apr 02 2000 - 14:51:26 EDT
<x-flowed>At 13:58 02/04/00, RHutchin@aol.com wrote:
>. According to the Fribergs, PARELQHi is subjuntive, aorist, active. Why
>would Jesus use that verb form instead of the future tense? What idea is a
>person able to convey by using that verb form?
The use of OU MH + aorist subjunctive is quite fully treated [ nearly a
page ] in s.444 of:
Zerwick, Maximilian S.J. Biblical Greek: Illustrated by Examples. English
edn. Adapted from the fourth Latin edn. By Joseph Smith S.J. Rome, 1963.
[ &several later editions ]
If you can't get access to it --- I would heartily recommend getting a copy
--- here is a very inadequate summary of an engrossing article:
Classically, this was used as an emphatic negative for the future.
In N.T, usage more frequent, accompanied by some lessening of the emphasis,
due to its use in relative clauses.
Outside of Rev. ( 16 occurrences ) it is "almost limited" to quotations
from the LXX and to the words of Jesus ( 57 out of 61 occurrences in the
gospels )
Use in LXX quotations might suggest a Semitic influence, but there is no
Semitic equivalent.
Rare in the papyri, where it always very emphatic.
"In majority" of NT uses, " OU MH may be said to express a 'prophetic'
emphasis.
Never used by the Evangelists ( or by Lk in Ac. ) for their own narrative
but always reserved for quoted speech.
Usual emphasis in 4 usages by Paul.
Hopes this helps
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros@iol.ie
[ subscribed to MSN Messenger
o_sullivanmauric@hotmail.com ]
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