Re: independent adjective 1 Cor. 7:12

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Thu Apr 13 2000 - 08:18:48 EDT


At 7:12 AM -0400 4/13/00, broking wrote:
>Thanks to both Carl and Harold for their insight on this subject.
>My understanding is close to Carl's. Carl really helped me focus
>better on the context of the passage, which leads me to this
>question. Is the dative,"TOIS DE LOIPOIS," the dative of
>respect?
>
>Sincerely,
>Darrell Broking

Since the verbs used with these datives, when expressed, are LEGW and
PARAGGELLW, I see no reason to take them as anything other than the
ordinary dative of indirect object ("dative of reference" or "dative of
interest"). The problem with all these designations for different datives
or genitives is that different grammarians use different words for the same
thing. What one ends up calling them is ultimately a pragmatic choice; my
own preference, when looking at a dative that I'm not immediately sure of,
is to ask whether it appears to be "true dative" of the person concerned in
the predicate, or "instrumental-comitative" or "locative" and subdivide
categories of usage as necessary there, remembering that in most instances,
the categorial distinctions we draw between dative or genitive or
accusative usages are for the sake of our own translation into target
languages and may not have ever been distinctions of which ancient
speakers/writers of Greek were fully conscious at all.

-- 

Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu

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