From: Michael Hildenbrand (hildenbr@Haas.Berkeley.EDU)
Date: Thu Apr 27 2000 - 14:18:54 EDT
Thanks for your response. I have flopped back and forth on this,
and I have read the grammars on this (BD & Rob), and still don't see an
objective way to argue for or against this view. I have a high respect
for your work, so this lends strong support for this view, especially in
view of the fact that this reading is "polliticaly incorrect" yet you
think that this is what the author intended.
On Thu, 27 Apr 2000, Jim West wrote:
> At 10:16 AM 4/27/00 -0700, you wrote:
> > The question comes with regard to the relationship of the two
> >clauses and *oude*. Does the not allowing "a woman to teach" only relate
> >to the "man," [that is the sentence is stating that the woman cannot teach
> >a *man* but can teach women and children] could it be that the first
> >clause stands independently, and thus a woman is simply not allowed to
> >teach. He is affirming the latter, but I cannot figure an objective way
> >to either deny or affirm his exegesis.
> > I am well aware of the ramifications of this question and I am
> >quite aware of the other passages that relate to this question. I am
> >concerned with the syntax of the sentence.
> Since its syntax that "taxes" you here (pun intended) Blass-Debrunner
> suggest (in the 17th edition of their grammar), p. 374-5, that "oudh am
> Satzanfang oder nach ou innerhalb desselben Satzstueckes = 'auch nicht',
> 'nicht einmal'. But since the phrase you wonder about doesnt "begin" with
> the word-- this is not necessarily applicable.
> Perhaps oudh here could be rendered "not even".... (see Robertson, p. 1185).
> In any event this in not a very politically correct way to render the
> verse-- but I think that the author of 1 Tim meant just that-- that women
> should be silent and not teach, and not even have any sort of authority---
> over men.
> Over women and children??? Who knows. The passage doesn't seem to address
> that issue at all.
> Jim West, ThD
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