From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon May 08 2000 - 00:17:47 EDT
Dr. English, in his 1954 book, Rethinking the Rapture, makes
an observation regarding APOSTASIA that, if true, is rather
He contends that APOSTASIA does not mean a "religious falling
away" or a "falling away from the faith" UNLESS THE CONTEXT
imposes that meaning to it.
Hence, by itself, APOSTASIA simply means a movement from
Point A. to Point B, without any religious implications.
If one checks the uses of APOSTASIA elsewhere in the New
Testament, most noteably Acts, I believe Dr. English's
contention proves true. APOSTASIA is always modified in the
context to give it its "religious departure" meaning.
Therefore, if his conclusions are true, then 2 Thess. 2, which
has no "religious apostasy" context, would simply mean
a departure of some kind, not excluding the Rapture.
Add to that that the "apostasy" mentioned in 1 Timothy 4 does
NOT mention a worldwide, large-scale apostasy by any means.
Here is my question: It is almost universally accepted that Paul
is referring to THE (hence, well-known) APOSTASIA of 1 Timothy 4
in 2 Thess. 2. How can this be?
Why is Dr. English's observation seemingly brushed aside? Several
commentaries acknowledge his claim, but few seem to investigate it.
His contention seems to prove remarkably true in the New Testament.
I am not contending that the APOSTASIA in 2 Thess. 2 is the Rapture;
I am simply not eliminating it yet.
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