From: Harold R. Holmyard III (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon May 08 2000 - 15:56:24 EDT
Dear B. J.,
Thanks for the question. You write about Mark 3:29:
>Note that ìwhoeverî (OS Dí AN) refers to those in verse 28 whose sins and
>blasphemies will be forgiven. That is, all ìotherî sins and blasphemies
>will be forgiven; verse 29 identifies, therefore, the only exception to
>the blasphemies of verse 28.
No, hOS D' AN refers to the person who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit.
>Regarding: OUK ECEI AFESIN
>Issue: who or what has no forgiveness?
The person who blasphemes has no forgiveness.
>I am looking for syntactical considerations that would preclude my
>translating OUK ECEI AFESIN as ìit (the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit) has
>no forgiveness. I think that most take this to be ìhe has no forgiveness.
>Would this translation (it) be forced or awkward? Are there any
>syntactical indicators that would suggest ìheî as the more likely reading,
>as opposed to ìit?
Really, in verse 29 one can regard all the words preceding the verb OUK
ECEI as a relative clause subject of ECEI. So hOS is also the subject of
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