From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue May 16 2000 - 14:17:09 EDT
I find this question intriguing. Unfortunately, I am not the one qualified
to respond from a scholar’s standpoint, but I think I would offer this
The Shema in Deut. 6:4 uses a Hebrew word (EHAD, not sure of spelling) for
the translation of the word “ONE” Lord. This is the same word used in
Genesis 2:24 where the husband and wife will become “ONE” flesh. That would
indicate, to me, that they are to live together as a UNIT, or a TEAM.
The NET Bible translation on the internet also mentions that this word EHAD
does have the idea of UNITY in the Duet. 6:4 passage.
Here is my reflection:
Based on progressive revelation, the idea of the Trinity was probably not
explicit until even after the close of the NT Canon. But looking backward,
knowing now what we do about the Trinity (something the Jew who read the
Shema would not necessarily know), I believe we can see in the word EHAD
something similar to the implications of your question of John 10.
I realize that your question did not reference the Trinity, but I could not
help but see this connection.
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