From: Lauren Porter (Lauren_Porter@ms1.asburyseminary.edu)
Date: Sat May 20 2000 - 08:05:24 EDT
>Help? I ahve run into a word in Gal. 3:19 that I seem to have either
>forgotten the connection or perhaps had never run into it before.
>The sentance reads:
>TWN PARABASEWN XARIN PROSETEQH AXRIS OU ELQHi TO SPERMA hWi EPHGGELETAI,
>DIATAGEIS DI AGGELWN EN XEIRI MESITOU.
>The word in question is DIATAGEIS at the beginning of the second clause.
>have determined that this is a form of one of two words:
>1: DIATAGH, "Arrangement" but which case? my declension would be
>DIATAGH . DIATAGAI
>DIATAGHS . DIATAGWN
>DIATAGHi . DIATAGAIS
>DIATAGHN . DIATAGAS
>Genative singular seems closest, but should it not have an antcedent in
>2: DIATASSW "to arrange" but what tense ,etc. Aorist or perfect perhaps
>what person and number give -EIS?
>I have tentatively place both options in my notes and seem to see the idea
>either case. My thoughts on this verse so far goes like this:
>It was added a grace for transgessors until the seed has come to whom it
>promised, | an arrangement | arranged | by angels by the hand of a
>Am I close?
>Thanks for your advice in advance.
Your second option, as listed above, is the best choice. DIATAGEIS is a
2nd Aorist Passive Participle Masculine singular Nominative, agreeing then
with the understood subject (NOMOS) of your main verb PROSETEQH. Thus, it
would be rendered, "was arranged" or "having been arranged." Something
along those lines. What might have thrown you in identifying the form is
perhaps the omition of the Q from the expected QH tense suffix of the
Aorist Passive. The dropping of the Q is a standard feature of the Second
Aorist. Hope this helps.
Asbury Theological Seminary
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