EIS TO with infinitive

From: L. Tichy (tichy@cmtfnw.upol.cz)
Date: Mon Jun 19 2000 - 11:45:50 EDT


Norbert Baumert, in a German article "EIS TO mit Infinitiv", in:
*Filología neotestamentaria* I (1998), pp. 7-24, advances the thesis
that, in the New Testament, EIS TO with infinitive has always a final
meaning, but EIS TO with accusative and infinitive always expresses a
consequence. He makes his assertion purposely contrary to the Grammars
(cf. Blass-Debrunner etc. § 402.2) that give either meaning for both
constructions. I must confess I am not convinced by his argumentation,
in particular by the methodology itself, by his one-sided
interpretation of singular New Testament texts and by the fact that
texts having accusative with infinitive can be found, e. g. in the
Septuagint 1Mac 6:55 (EKQREYAI ANTIOCON TON UhION AUTOU EIS TO
BASILEUSAI AUTON), that have clearly a consequent meaning.
What would the B-Greekers, especially those experienced among them,
as e. g. Carl Conrad, say to the this matter?

Ladislav Tichy
Faculty of Theology
Palacky University
Olomouc
Czech Republic



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