From: Eric S. Weiss (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Jun 20 2000 - 01:34:21 EDT
Just some random thoughts:
Jesus asks him EI TI BLEPEIS; "Do you see anything?"
Mark 8:24 says ANABLEJAS, which can mean that he "looked up" (most
translations), but can also mean he "regained his sight" (do most choose
"he looked up" because 8:25 finally says that APEKATESTH - his sight was
restored?). I wonder if a hint of both meanings is here, i.e., he looked up
and began to see again?
"And he looked up and/or regained some sight, and was (or "began") saying
(txt. var. "he said" - EIPEN): 'I see [what must be] people - because what
I am making out looks like trees that are walking.'"
I.e., "It looks to me (hORAW) like trees walking, but since trees don't
walk, what appears to me (hORAW) as trees must really be men/people, so,
yes, I see (BLEPW) - I see (BLEPW) men/people."
So I guess I'm saying that the BLEPW seems kind of general, in response to
Jesus's question which used BLEPW. And the hORAW seems more specific -
i.e., what exactly is he seeing/perceiving/making out with his eyes?
Now, I could change my mind about this tomorrow morning, but there seems to
me to be some kind of a distinction here, as opposed to, e.g., John's use
of closely-related terms in GJohn where I think it's often more a stylistic
thing than a distinction in meaning. And because of that, I think
translations should maybe try to use a different word for hORAW than what
they use for BLEPW here.
But I am just being totally off-the-cuff here and relating (guessing?) some
perceptions that could be totally wrong. I haven't even studied the
Thanks for the thoughtful question!!
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