From: Roe (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Jun 20 2000 - 13:32:48 EDT
Well, since the forum is relatively slow today...
EI TIS ERCETAI PROS ME KAI OU MISEI TON PATERA hEAUTOU KAI THN MHTERA
We see (here by "...KAI GUNAIKA") that in such passages the masculine
indefinite pronoun TIS refers to a male. (Another example: 1 Corinthians
7:12 EI TIS ADELFOS GUNAIKA ECEI APISTON...)
Yet in most cases the masc singular TIS just as obviously refers to a
person of either gender (as the English "one", or the German "man"):
Luke 9:23 ...EI TIS QELEI OPISW MOU ERCESQAI ARNHSASQW hEAUTON...
What is the "rule" in those many cases where the context does not
determine the gender to be male? Is one always to assume the masc
singular TIS refers to either gender in cases where the context does not
identify the gender as male?
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