From: B.J. Williamson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Jun 24 2000 - 11:32:35 EDT
"Mark Wilson" <email@example.com>
>TO DE ANEBH TI ESTIN EI MH hOTI KAI KATEBH EIS TO KATWTERA MERH THS GHS
>How can a Genitive of Apposition denote a SUBSEQUENT descent in this verse?
What I think Wallace is saying is that "if" we take the THS GHS as
Apposition, then we have eliminated the option of Christ descending down
into the lower parts "of the earth" (Hades). Rather, the descent here would
be to the lower parts, the earth. By eliminating a descent of Christ "into"
the earth, one must then locate another "descent."
>“what does this mean except that subsequently he also descended into the
>lower parts of the earth”
>Would this translation be acceptable?
For Wallace's point, change your translation to "lower parts, namely, the
earth." The rest would then be correct in that it represents Wallace's
>The final statement Dr. Wallace makes in this footnote has really confused
>me. He feels that if this idea of AFTER is correct (which, he says, “has
>much to commend it”), then that would mean the descent is a reference to
>the Spirit’s descent on the day of Pentecost.
>Is not the subject of Eph. 4:9 Christ? How could the descent of the Spirit
>equate to a descent of Christ? I think that the KAI KATEBH (he ALSO
>descended) would mean that the same one who ascended ALSO descended.
You are picking up Greek rather quickly I would say. Your points here are
valid. A reference to the Spirit's descent in this verse must address your
points, as well as the next verse, where the one who descended is identified
as the one who also (ALSO) ascended. Likewise, the previous verse references
the one who "gave" gifts.
Before you know it, you will be a scholar :)
I think you are seeing that everyone's translations are influenced by his or
her theology. When multiple options are "equally" (that is, they can be
grammatically supported) valid translations, the tendency of the translators
would be to migrate toward their theological persuasions.
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