Date: Sun Jul 02 2000 - 03:42:27 EDT
In a message dated 6/29/2000 6:18:47 PM Central Standard Time,
I am reading a commentary now on Romans Chapters 9-11.
The author states that Paul does not quote exactly from either the LXX or
the MT on some occasions. For example, in one instance, Paul uses a
different Mood than the LXX has.
This comment provoked me to ask these questions:
Do we have today access to the "same" LXX that Paul used? (Perhaps in Paul's
day it was similar to ours. We have thousands of mss. Many of them differ
here and there. How can we know WHICH LXX Paul was using in order to
conclude that he was not quoting verbatim?)
During Lent we undertook to read the entire NT in Greek. In the course of
doing so I noted that Paul seems to consistently quote the LXX. In most
cases his quotes are virtually identical to Rahlfs'. Although there were
minor discrepancies, these were usually attributable to adjusting the
quotation to fit into the discussion. Offhand I don't recall the specifics,
but I'm sure that it wouldn't be too difficult to compare his quotations with
the Rahlfs' LXX text. I can recall no instance in which Paul forsakes the
LXX to make his own translation from the MT. Since he was from the diaspora,
it makes me wonder if perhaps he didn't feel totally comfortable with Hebrew.
The author of the Apocalypse, on the other hand, does his own translations
which differ from the LXX.
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