From: Timothy E. Mills (TEMsMail@aol.com)
Date: Wed Jul 05 2000 - 17:57:05 EDT
I would like to ask for your assistance with the last phrase of John 6:27.
However, I am afraid that I may be making a mountain out of a mole hill.
The NAS reads: "Do not work for the food which perishes, but for the food
which endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man shall give to you, for
on Him the Father, even God, has set His seal."
I find that the NASB translation (and others) is unsatisfactory to me, in
light of the original Greek. The NASB reading, in particular, of "for on
Him the Father, even God, has set His seal," is unsatisfactory to me. The
two occurrences of the definite article, one with the Father and the other
with God, is rather weakly represented by "the Father, even God."
The UBS4 reads: hERGAZESTHE MH THN BRWSIN THN APOLLUMEVHN ALLA THN BRWSIN
THN MENOUSAV EIS ZWHN AIWVIOV, HN hO UIOS TOU hANTHRWPOU HMIV DWSEI.
TOUTOV GAR hO PATHR hESPHRAGISEV hO THEOS.
I am puzzled with the last phrase of the Greek: TOUTOV GAR hO PATHR
hESPHRAGISEV hO THEOS.
The Greek parses:
TOUTOV adjective pron. demonstrative acc. masc. sing.
GAR subordinating conjunction
hO definite article, nom. masc. sing.
PATHR noun nom. masc. sing.
hESPHRAGISEV verb imperf. act. acc. 3rd pers. sing.
hO definite article nom. masc. sing.
THEOSnoun nom. masc. sing.
If "hO PATHR" & "hO THEOS" are read as "God the Father" or as "the Father,
even God," with "hO THEOS" being an adjective of "hO PATHR," (TOUTOV begins
the adjectival phrase), then why is "hESPHRAGISEV" between the two phrases?
Would not "hESPHRAGISEV" also be part of the adjectival phrase, thus
describing the one sealed as God, rather than "God" being a quality of "the
Could this be read as "this one the Father sealed as God," Jesus having
been sealed by the Father as God?
A. T. Robertson had: "For him the Father, even God, hath sealed.
Literally, 'For this one the Father sealed, God.' First aorist active
indicative of hESPHRAGISEV, to seal. See elsewhere in John 3:33
(attestation by man). Sealing by God is rare in N.T. (2Co 1:22; Eph 1:13;
4:30). It is not clear to what item, if any single one, John refers when
the Father set his seal of approval on the Son. It was done at his baptism
when the Holy Spirit came upon him and the Father spoke to him. Cf. 5:37"
This literal translation of Robertson's would tend to support my idea that
the Father sealed the Son as being God.
Rogers & Rogers, and Rienecker said: ". . . to seal, to certify (s. John
3:33). The sacrificial animals were examined and sealed if perfect.
Perhaps the thought of Christ as an accepted sacrifice is indicated
(Westcot)." R & R continued "Perhaps in the sense of attestation that the
Son of Man give true, imperishable food (NIDNTT)" (197).
I would appreciate any insight you could offer me!! All though I am fairly
sure that I have made a correct interpretation of the text, the weight of
scholarship is against me, and I don't want to draw the right doctrine from
the wrong text!
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [email@example.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:36:31 EDT