[b-greek] Re: Romans 6:7

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Jul 18 2000 - 13:39:15 EDT

At 1:30 PM -0400 7/18/00, Mike Sangrey wrote:
>Romans 6:7
>Given the context, the way I want to translate this is something like:
> For the one permanently separately from sin has been declared righteous.
>Joining the prepositional phrase to the participle.
>But, can I do that? It seems to me, based on grammar, that it should
>be translated as:
> For the one who has died has been declared righteous apart from sin.
>Well, pardon me, but no kidding. Can a person be declared righteous
>and remain in sin. Of course! there is a separation from sin in the act of
>justification. (Pardon the theology, if a different theological perspective
>clears this up, reply off-list. I'll be glad for the help.)
>Or, is the sense more along these lines:
> For the one who died has been declared righteous, and sin is
> not even (or no longer) considered.

I think this last is indeed the case; certainly there's no way that the
prepositional phrase, especially separated so far as it is from the
substantival participle, could be understood attributively with it. I'd
give the whole the sense: "One who has died stands acquitted of sin." That
is to say, I'd understand DIKAIOW APO + gen. as "pass a verdict of
not-guilty of X."


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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