From: David McKay (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Aug 05 2000 - 03:32:53 EDT
I have been reading some seemingly novel interpretations of Scripture at
www.jarom.net One of these is that KATA PROQESIN in Romans 8:28 refers to
the purpose of TOIS AGAPWSIN TON QEON and not to God's purpose, which is the
sense of all translations of this verse I have ever seen.
The argument given is that "his" which is supplied in every translation I
have seen, is not in the Greek.
How do we know that Paul is referring to God's purpose? Is there a hint in
the Greek? I don't have any in depth commentaries no Romans, unfortunately.
I'd love to have the full Cranfield and should buy a second-hand copy, I
guess, because I sure can't afford the recommended retail price plus GST in
Australia! [I greatly appreciated Cranfield at college: how little did I
know when it seemed expensive at 1978 prices!]
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:36:33 EDT