From: Mike Sangrey (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Aug 05 2000 - 15:00:30 EDT
On 08/05/00, ""David McKay" <email@example.com>" wrote:
> I have been reading some seemingly novel interpretations of Scripture at
> www.jarom.net One of these is that KATA PROQESIN in Romans 8:28 refers to
> the purpose of TOIS AGAPWSIN TON QEON and not to God's purpose, which is the
> sense of all translations of this verse I have ever seen.
> The argument given is that "his" which is supplied in every
> translation I have seen, is not in the Greek.
> How do we know that Paul is referring to God's purpose? Is there a
> hint in the Greek?
I notice verse 8:27 which has the phrase, TO FRONHMA TOU PNEUMATOS. According
to Louw & Nida (L&N), FRONHMA is "the psychological faculty of thoughtful
planning, often with the implication of being wise and provident - `thoughtful
planning, way of thinking, outlook.' [26.15]" Along with that L&N define
PROQESIN as "that which is planned or purposed in advance - `plan, proposal,
There's a fair amount of semantic cohesion between these two words, so there
is some prominence of the concept of "planning" happening here. Maybe the
following would capture the thought, "...namely those being called according
Frankly, the novel argument seems, please forgive me, rather empty. What's
the difference between the purpose (plan) of God's love and He himself
purposing or planning? Love doesn't exist in some vacuum! God is not somehow
disconnected from it. Maybe I'm missing the point of it.
Every Christian library should have a plaque which states:
"There is one book which explains all these."
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