From: Mark Wilson (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Aug 14 2000 - 01:17:48 EDT
What I simply do not see here is why the fuss. It seems to me that our scale
may reflect more of a worldly appraisal than a spiritual one.
Here is why:
I think implicit is the (human viewpoint) assumption that a submissive role
of a woman or wife represents something less than "equality." But why does
this follow? (Especially to the extent that Carl would see a “major”
conflict with Gal 3 or Gen 1–3).
Could I not equally (no pun intended) assert that God has indeed assigned
women or wives submissive roles to men or husbands, BUT, that these
submissive roles are a “higher” spiritual calling than that of the
leadership roles assigned to men? And my objection would then be directed
toward why God has assigned men the "lesser" role.
Could I not reject 1 Tim 2 because it assigns to the woman a submissive role
rather than a man? Perhaps it takes a stronger person spiritually to fulfill
a submissive role, and God has given this privileged role to women only.
Here, I could still object to this "apparent" un-equality, but with a
spiritual twist: God has given the "higher" role to the woman. (That is: Why
are men serving in an "inferior" role?)
I have never understood why we arbitrarily equate a submissive role to an
inferior, or less than equal, role.
The rationale escapes me. I think if we looked at this from a purely "human"
perspective, we might indeed conclude that an "un-equality" exists. But this
certainly does not seem to reflect any biblical requirement.
Could someone help me understand why the implicit assumption that if a woman
occupied a submissive role as a Christian that this would imply a less than
equal role? (That is, submissive necessitates un-equality.)
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