[b-greek] Re: PANTWN hUMWN in 1 Cor 14:18

From: Mark Wilson (emory2002@hotmail.com)
Date: Thu Aug 24 2000 - 19:37:14 EDT

>This raises a different question than I was asking, but still appropriate.
>Does MALLON refer to the comparative number of languages/tongues that Paul
>and the Corinthians speak or the comparative number of occasions or times
>that they speak in tongues?

Again, I do not see any reason to restrict the usage here. Do you?

Since God had called Paul to the unique role as apostle to the Gentiles
(plural), it would seem beyond likely that Paul spoke BOTH more (Gentile)
languages and on more occasions than those who had this gift in Corinth.

(I personally do not use "tongues" since it seems archaic to me. I would
consider using "tongues" if I were conversing with a native American Indian,

I mean no disrepect, but why do you ask?

Thank you,

Mark Wilson

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