[b-greek] Re: Meaning of PANTWN hUMWN in 1 Cor 14:18

From: Lynn Trapp (rltrapp@bluebunny.com)
Date: Fri Aug 25 2000 - 12:21:16 EDT

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<TITLE>[b-greek] Re: Meaning of PANTWN hUMWN in 1 Cor 14:18</TITLE>

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<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN class=344361816-25082000>Thanks
for your helpful response to this post. I would like to further the discussion
by trying to discover the reason you believe GLWSSAI in Acts 2 is different from
that in 1 Cor. 12-14. Are there instances in other Greek literature that show
GLWSSAI being used to refer to "ecstatic speech". I was under the impression
that it always referred to normal human speech. </SPAN></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN class=344361816-25082000>Thanks
in advance for you enlightenment.</SPAN></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN
class=344361816-25082000>Lynn&nbsp; :-)</SPAN></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT color=#0000ff face=Arial size=2><SPAN
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  <DIV align=left class=OutlookMessageHeader dir=ltr><FONT face=Tahoma
  size=2>-----Original Message-----<BR><B>From:</B> Carl W. Conrad
  [mailto:cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu]<BR><B>Sent:</B> Friday, August 25, 2000
  6:22 AM<BR><B>To:</B> Biblical Greek<BR><B>Cc:</B> Biblical
  Greek<BR><B>Subject:</B> [b-greek] Re: Meaning of PANTWN hUMWN in 1 Cor
  <DIV>At 11:37 PM +0000 8/24/00, Mark Wilson wrote:</DIV>
  <DIV>&gt;&gt;This raises a different question than I was asking, but still
  appropriate.<BR>&gt;&gt;Does MALLON refer to the comparative number of
  languages/tongues that Paul<BR>&gt;&gt;and the Corinthians speak or the
  comparative number of occasions or times<BR>&gt;&gt;that they speak in
  tongues?<BR>&gt;<BR>&gt;<BR>&gt;Again, I do not see any reason to restrict the
  usage here. Do you?<BR>&gt;<BR>&gt;Since God had called Paul to the unique
  role as apostle to the Gentiles<BR>&gt;(plural), it would seem beyond likely
  that Paul spoke BOTH more (Gentile)<BR>&gt;languages and on more occasions
  than those who had this gift in Corinth.<BR>&gt;<BR>&gt;(I personally do not
  use "tongues" since it seems archaic to me. I would<BR>&gt;consider using
  "tongues" if I were conversing with a native American
  <DIV>&gt;I mean no disrepect, but why do you ask?</DIV>
  <DIV>I noted yesterday, perhaps all too briefly, that I see no relationship
  between Acts 2 and the discussion of GLWSSAI in 1 Cor 12-14; I think the
  confusion is between two very different senses of GLWSSH for (1) an
  intelligible human language (in Acts 2, where Luke seems to envision a
  reversal of the dispersion of humanity into diverse language-speaking ethnic
  groups in the Genesis Babel story--and I understand Acts 2 as a proleptic
  narrative assertion that the gospel, heard in every human language, will
  restore the primal unity of humanity) and (2) ecstatic speech that is
  unintelligible by itself and requires an interpreter--and in 1 Cor 14 Paul
  insists that this glossolalia ought not to be undertaken in worship without
  interpreters being present to make the sense of what is 'babbled' intelligible
  to others. Here's Louw &amp; Nida:</DIV>
  <DIV><FONT color=#007700>33.2 GLWSSA, HS f: a language, with the possible
  implication of its distinctive form - 'language, dialect, speech.' HRXANTO
  LALEIN hETERAIS GLWSSAIS 'they began to talk in other languages' Ac 2:4. The
  miracle described in Ac 2:4 may have been a miracle of speaking or a miracle
  of hearing, but at any rate people understood fully, and therefore it seems
  appropriate in this context to speak of 'languages' in contrast with 1Cor
  14:2, in which case people required an interpreter if they were to receive the
  presumed content of the speech (see 33.3).</FONT></DIV>
  <DIV><FONT color=#007700><BR></FONT></DIV>
  <DIV><FONT color=#007700>33.3 GLWSSA, HS f: an utterance having the form of
  language but requiring an inspired interpreter for an understanding of the
  content - 'ecstatic language, tongue, ecstatic speech.' hO GAR LALWN GLWSSHi
  OUK ANQRWPOIS LALEI ALLA QEWi×- 'he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to
  people but to God' 1Cor 14:2. Most scholars assume that the phenomena
  described in Ac 2:4 (see 33.2) and in 1Cor 14:2 are significantly different in
  that in one instance people understood in their own regional language or
  dialect and in the other instance an interpreter was required. It is for that
  reason that many interpret glw×ssa in 1Cor 14:2 as ecstatic speech, which was
  also an element in Hellenistic religions and constituted a symbol of divine
  <DIV><FONT color=#007700><BR></FONT></DIV>
  <DIV><FONT color=#007700>And again I would argue that MALLON PANTWN hUMWN
  LALW)<FONT color=#007700> must mean "I thank God that I speak ecstatically
  more than all of you." It's not at all a matter of speaking more different
  languages but of speaking a language that is not ordinary human language at
  all--and personally I think that this assertion of Paul is probably sarcastic,
  as I think many of Paul's statements in this letter to Corinthians who are so
  proud of their private mystical experience are sarcastic. I don't wish to
  argue that question, because it really doesn't have to do with the Greek text
  as such but with the general interpretation of 1 Corinthians, but it IS a
  strange statement for Paul to make in a context where he seems to be trying to
  discourage glossolalia as a key element in worship.</FONT></DIV>
  <DIV>-- <BR><BR>Carl W. Conrad<BR>Department of Classics/Washington
  University<BR>One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314)
  935-4018<BR>Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314)
  726-5649<BR>cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu <BR>WWW:


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