[b-greek] Re: PANTWN hUMWN in 1 Cor 14:18

From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@speedgate.net)
Date: Fri Aug 25 2000 - 13:07:33 EDT

>At 2:41 PM +0000 8/25/00, Mark Wilson wrote:
>>Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>>>I noted yesterday, perhaps all too briefly, that I see no relationship
>>>between Acts 2 and the discussion of GLWSSAI in 1 Cor 12-14;
>>I actually did see this brief comment, but had no idea what you meant. Now
>>that you have clarified it, I would unequivocally disagree!!!!
>>However, I do note that in 1 Cor 14, some Corinthians had manufactured their
>>own "gift of tongues," (ecstatics) but this false "tongues" is the subject
>>of Paul's sharp rebuke. They were acting like children.
>>As Paul indicates in 1 Cor. 14:21-22, the gift of Gentile Languages was
>>prophesied in Isaiah 28. The Isaiah "near" fulfillment was in perfectly
>>understood Gentile Languages. Same with the "far" fulfillment.
>>But then again, Carl has always warned us that he is
>>very Liberal :o )
>Have I really used that term of myself in on-list correspondence in more
>recent years? While I am not averse to claiming it, I really think that the
>way we use such labels in list-correspondence is a way of dismissing other
>people's opinions without thinking very seriously about them. I didn't and
>don't expect that my comments will find wide acceptance among list-members,
>but it should be noted (once again) that we aren't enforcing any particular
>"orthodoxy" of views here, and also that the proper focus of discussion is
>the meaning of the Greek, in this instance the meaning of GLWSSA and
>whether it is to be interpreted in all NT texts in the same way. On that
>issue I think there may well be more than one viewpoint.
I do not recall Carl Conrad using the term "very liberal" on this list and
I have read every one of his posts. I would warn that you should leave such
terms as "liberal" and "conservative" out of the discussion on B-Greek. It
has nothing to do with the "meanings" of greek phrases. If you suspect that
someone is letting theological bias interfere, I suggest you play it safe
and write them off-line.

I agree with Carl that 1 Cor. 14 and Acts 2 are two different things. In
Acts there is no need for a divinely gifted interpreter while in 1 Cor 14
no one understands withour such a person. In 1st Cor the message of
"tongues" is directed to God alone but in Acts 2 to people in Jerusalem
from various countries. The miracle in Acts 2 is that each heard in the
language in which they were born (DIALECTOS). IMHO what we have in Acts 2
is a miraculous short cut to the Berlitz School but in 1 Cor the religious
phenomena of ecstatic (a good term from a psychological perspective) speech
which as far as we can tell never involved a known human language. 1 Cor

Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off

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