[b-greek] jn 1:41

From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Wed Aug 30 2000 - 11:12:00 EDT

i find that in rabbinic literature the term <gk>euriskei</gk> is rendered
<heb>ashkath</heb> carrying the connotation of a confrontation. im
wondering if the greek word euriskw bears such a connotation as well. and
even if it doesnt, is it possible to render it here as if it did since john
is writing to jews and would no doubt expect them to hear the word on their
own terms.




"Do not ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by
incompetence" -Napoleon

Jim West, ThD

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