[b-greek] Re: jn 1:41

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Aug 30 2000 - 11:29:39 EDT

At 11:12 AM -0400 8/30/00, Jim West wrote:
>i find that in rabbinic literature the term <gk>euriskei</gk> is rendered
><heb>ashkath</heb> carrying the connotation of a confrontation. im
>wondering if the greek word euriskw bears such a connotation as well. and
>even if it doesnt, is it possible to render it here as if it did since john
>is writing to jews and would no doubt expect them to hear the word on their
>own terms.

No. IF he were writing to Jews (only) and (no doubt) were expecting them to
hear the word on their own terms, I would have thought he'd be writing to
them in their own language. There IS a limit, I think, beyond which you
can't push this proposition that it's an accident that the NT corpus
survives only in Greek and that it fundamentally reflects Jewish tradition

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649

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