[b-greek] Re: Philippians 1:6

From: Holly Vipond (hollydawn@hotmail.com)
Date: Mon Sep 04 2000 - 17:14:57 EDT

On 09/04/00, "Mike Sangrey <mike@sojurn.lns.pa.us>" wrote:


> So, my question is generally how one would translate this.
> Specifically, would
> "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue to
> complete it until the day of Christ Jesus"
> or
> "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue until
> he completes it at the day of Christ Jesus"


Aren't the meanings of these two translations essentially the same? In both
cases we are saying, "he began something then; he's continuing it now; it
will be complete in the day of Jesus." I think that the understood meaning
is the same in both translations, and I think that they are faithful to the
text. The first one gives a more literal translation, while the second
gives more clarity.

If there is a difference in meaning between the two, please expound :)


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