[b-greek] Re: Greekless TR Passages

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Mon Sep 11 2000 - 14:36:21 EDT


Ted Mann wrote:
>I would be appreciative if someone would be kind enough to provide me
>with a list of those passages in the TR which are not supported by any
>Greek manuscript evidence at all. Many thanks.

This question reminded me that I have never understood something about the
Textus Receptus.

I have read Dr. White's King James Only Controvery, and found it most
helpful. However, I was a bit disappointed that Dr. White no where defines
the TR is such a way as to clarify it for me.

He does indicate that the TR was not a "unit" until the printing of the KJV
in 1611. That is, prior to that, it was several manuscripts of the Byzantine

Notice this comment by Dr. Wallace:

"The Textus Receptus here refers to the edition used by Hodges and Farstad,
namely, the Oxford edition of 1825."

This leads me to believe that the TR is still not a "unit." That is, there
appears to be multiple "editions." And Dr. White actually provides a
comparison chart that compares one TR with another TR.

Could someone help me understand what the TR is? Or, what the TRs are?

Does multiple "editions" mean that there are multiple TRs today?

If I asked you to hand me the TR, would you need to inquire "which one?"

Is the TR the sum total of many MSS, where each complied "edition" may vary
slightly one from another?

Dr. Wallace's reference to the 1825 Oxford edition leads me to believe there
are other editions. If so, in what way do these "editions" differ? Are these
editions "translations" or "manuscripts?"

See! I told you I was confused. I don't even know what questions to ask!

Thank you,

Mark Wilson

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