From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Sep 14 2000 - 17:25:19 EDT
I'll respond to some of this:
>What are some of the thoughts in recent scholarship into
>the 1st century use of SWZW which have direct bearing on translating this?
>1Tim. 2:3-4: TOUTO KALON KAI APODEKTON ENWPION TOU SWTHROS hHMWN QEON, hOS
>PANTAS ANQRWPOUS QELEI SWQHNAI KAI EIS EPIGNWSIN ALHQEIAS ELQEIN
>Is this really saying that God wills all men to be saved (QEON, hOS PANTAS
>ANQRWPOUS QELEI SWQHNAI)? What are the implications of QELEI here?
QELW to me has 3 prominent lexical meanings:
Which, when used of God, would correspond to His "sovereignty." When will is
used of man, it refers to our "volition."
>What lexicological issues are involved in SWZW?
In general, SWZW denotes a deliverance. This word had a wide variety of
nuances in the NT alone. Primarily is context driven.
>Are there any temporal limitations on the sense of SWQHNAI QELEI?
Sorry. Clueless as to what you are asking here.
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