From: clayton stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Sep 20 2000 - 13:53:12 EDT
on 09/20/00 8:50 AM, Rob Matlack wrote:
> Could someone remind me or explain to me the periphrastic construction in
> John 3.21:
> .... hINA FANERWQHi AUTOU TA ERGA hOTI EN QEWi ESTIN EIPGASMENA
> I understand why ESTIN is singular (neuter plural subjects take a
> singular verb), but why is the participle, EIPGASMENA, not singular also?
> Obviously it is controlled by the noun, but why?
> Rob Matlack
> 620 E. 5th St., Minneapolis, KS 67467
Don't know why some professor has not answered this. That is what professors
are good at, much better than I am.
Anyway, EIPGASMENA is functioning as a predicate adjective and since TA ERGA
is the other term in the construction (even though it is separated by hOTI,
it is brought into the construction by the anaphoric pronominal inflection
of ESTIN) it will naturally agree with TA ERGA in number. ESTIN seems to be
the source of your confusion but as you have said ESTIN can be used with the
neuter plural. It seems that you have all the information you need already.
Cannot answer your question WHY because syntax is just a collection of
conventions, and the question WHY will often lead you nowhere at all.
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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