Date: Thu Sep 21 2000 - 06:54:58 EDT
> Blessings, All,
> Yesterday a conversation came up about semitic patterns in I Corinthians
> 1:23-25. Is this true?
see moulton and turner's Grammar of the Greek New Testament, vol 4- Style.
They discuss all these issues for each of the NT authors.
>If so, are there other instances where Paul uses
> Hebraisms to show his linguistic abilities for Aramaic or Hebrew? If
> Hebraisms are evident in the underlying tones of Greek texr, is it
> possible to reconstruct accurately a Hebrew text of the writings of Paul?
there are hebraisms in paul. getting agreement as to where they are is the
tricky part. its hard to unravel koine style from hebrew style in mayn places
in the NT. its almost like unravelling a rope or peeling an onion. as you
take off each layer by the time you are done you dont have anything left.
> Clement of Alexandria states that there was an original Book of Hebrews in
> the Hebrew language. Discounting the Book of Hebrews are there other
> possibilities for Hebrew originals [read 'autographs']?
no. paul wrote in greek for diaspora jewish christians and gentiles.
> Thank you for any response. I am using this material for a graduate level
> research paper.
good luck on that.
Jim West, ThD
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