From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Oct 11 2000 - 01:44:53 EDT
Throughout 1st John, John uses the Perfect Tense of GINWSKW. A commentary I
am reading insists that this should be translated "come to know."
Although he does state that the Perfect Tense is not a past tense, but
indicates the current state attained based on a past action, I am having a
hard time understanding his "come to know."
I think many on this list have preferred the emphasis to fall on the state
reached, as in: "are in a state of knowing [him]."
To me, "come to know" has a repetitive sense. To "come to know" seems to
imply an often repeated process of getting to know him more and more until
at last a state of knowing him is attained. How does the Perfect zero in on
this process? Does not the Perfect simply show the final outcome, as it
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