From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Oct 14 2000 - 06:10:22 EDT
At 8:21 PM -0400 10/13/00, David B Spotts wrote:
>Greetings, all you who are clearly more prepared than I for this
>I was helping my eighth graders look at the parsing of 1 John 1 and noted
>the phrase THN ZWHN THN AIWNION. I am not familiar with any reason for
>the masculine/neuter accusative for AIWNION, used as it is with a
>feminine noun and a feminine article. Why not AIWNIHN?
This one's relatively easy; AIWNIOS is a two-termination adjective,
evidently because it's deemed a compound of AI (i.e. AEI or AIEI) + WN).
There is at least one instance in Plato wherein it's deemed a regular
3-termination adjective, AIWNIOS/A/ON, but normally the -OS forms do
service for both masculine and feminine usage. It wouldn't be AIWNIHN in
any case because the original -A- of the feminine endings remains -A- and
doesn't change to -H- after an -I-, -E- or -R-.
>I'd welcome a reference to a web-based resource that would help with
>similar questions and keep you intelligent people from having to snicker
>at my questions.
For one like this on the web, it's easiest to go to the Perseus web-site's
LSJ lexicon; although you can go to the Perseus site's "starting points"
if it's an entry in LSJ, it's quicker to start with
>By the way, I really enjoy it when I have the opportunity to try to
>follow a thread on this list. It helps me try to remember to think like
>the Greek scholar I once was.
I'd put it, "like the Greek scholar we aspire to be!"
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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