From: Mike Sangrey (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Oct 16 2000 - 11:21:04 EDT
Kevin Smith <email@example.com> said:
> Eph 2:1, KAI hUMAS ONTAS NEKROUS TOIS PARAPTWMASIN KAI TAS hAMARTIAIS
> Question: Why is hUMAS accussative? It seems to be the object of an
> implied verb, but what verb?
I think this is an excellent question. I'd like to offer my opinion and
see how those more expert than I respond.
Paul states the object of the proposition (or concept, if you prefer):
hUMAS and then proceeds to characterize and define this object. Then in
verse 4, he finally (!) states the subject of the proposition: hO QEOS
PLOUSIOS. This subject he also proceeds to characterize and define in a
way which is similar to what he has just done with hUMAS, though not in
quite the expansive way he did in verses 1-3.
What's the verb? Well, what did God do? SUNEZWOPOIHSEN (verse 5). I
think that is why, after Paul finally gets to the verb, the climax of his
statement, he blurts out: CARITI ESTE SESWiSMENOI. What appears to be
rather "stuttery" (you may read that as anacoluthon) statement, is the
result of complex clausal structure to evince his climax.
I think the NIV has captured hUMAS ONTAS... well in its translation: "As
for you, you were dead..." Note the `comma'.
Paul is essentially saying, "I'm making a proposition here. The object is
`you'. The subject is `the God who is rich'. I want to get both the full
explanation of the object and subject on the table first because I'm
heading to the prominent, climatic statement. The main verb is `placed in
a raised-from-a-corpse state'. YOU ARE SAVED BY GRACE."
BTW, I'll be interested in Carl's response. He and I have had a rather
helpful-to-me exchange regarding Eph. 2:1-10. He should feel free to
bring in that discussion if he thinks it helpful to others (or me!).
It's OK to think differently, just think together.
Sooner or later that will bring out our faults;
then we can deal with them...together.
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