From: bsullivan (bsullivan@dingoblue.net.au)
Date: Thu Oct 19 2000 - 10:22:33 EDT
Greetings to all,
Mark 1:4 reads: egeneto Iwanhs ho baptizwn en th erhmw khrusswn baptisma
metanoias eis afesin hamartiwn
It is my understanding that when a participle has the article, but with no
preceding noun the noun is understood hence ho baptizwn refers to John 'the
(one) baptizing' (= the baptizer) virtually meaning ho baptisths [the
baptist].
Am I on the right track?
Yours Sincerely,
Brian Sullivan
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