[b-greek] Re: Smart's rule and John 20:28

From: One of the McKays (musicke@ozemail.com.au)
Date: Wed Oct 25 2000 - 06:15:54 EDT

> PS For those who have asked, Smart's rule has not been published.
> However, it is my understanding that Sharp's rule is accepted by
> most because of the fact that it has no exceptions. I have found no
> exceptions to Smart's rule. Therefore, anyone who accepts Sharps should
> also accept Smarts, agreed?

This does not follow, Dan.
I can follow Granville Sharp's rule. It makes perfect sense. Properly
understood, I don't see that there are exceptions to it.

But I can't see that because we accept Sharp, we must automatically accept
Smart. Smart's rule does not seem to make sense to me. I am not convinced of
the need for it. Is its sole purpose to reinterpret John 20:28?

David McKay

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