[b-greek] Smart's rule and John 20:28

From: Alex / Ali (alexali@surf.net.au)
Date: Wed Oct 25 2000 - 08:28:07 EDT

I have been reading of Smart's rule and John 20:28 with interest, and would
comment as follows on a couple of contributions received in the digest that
came today:

>While there are exceptions to G. Sharp's rule, there are none for M.
Smart's rule.

Maybe one shouldn't expect exceptions to an unpublished "rule"; to have any
status as a "rule", it must come into the public arena - unless, perhaps, it
doesn't deserve publication. To call a "rule" what is not commonly
acknowledged as such seems to me unfair to those who may give credence to it
simply on the basis of so specious a signification.

>May KAI in Thomas' speach NOT be a part of the speach, like this: "Thomas
said to Him, "My Lord!", and [then], "O my God!"?

No. I think we do a disservice to those who may be students of Greek to
suggest all the ways our imaginings can understand the text in a manner
other than its natural sense - it's a matter of not seeing the wood for the
trees. The EIPEN AUTWi makes clear to whom the words were addressed.

Students find it difficult enough to learn Greek without suggesting to them
a fear that within every phrase there lurks a plethora of hidden meanings,
the resolution of which lies within the province of unpublished and untested

Dr Alex Hopkins (Melbourne, Australia).

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