[b-greek] Re: Smart, Sharp, Colwell and the Value of "Rules" in General

From: Mark Beatty (marksresearch@hawaii.rr.com)
Date: Mon Oct 30 2000 - 21:37:14 EST

Dear Dan,

How do you define "one person" or "two people" (or groups etc.) in my Wed
10/25/00 10:06 p.m. post entitled "Smarts rule does not even work on clear
examples". I examine the ultimate references of "mother and brothers" and
though two groups, they form a "blend" that ultimately refer to individuals.
(Thus my comment that someone can be a Mary-James sort of person.)

Furthermore, I gave several examples in English, and according to universal
principles of syntax, this should argue by analogy. Furthermore again, a

native speaker of this post wrote me back and indicated that the Greek
equivalence of my English examples were also ambiguous.

Thus the question really is, are there any clear examples supporting Smart's

Mark Beatty

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