[b-greek] Re: James 1:26 -- lack of agreement in gender

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Fri Nov 10 2000 - 09:45:28 EST

At 8:01 AM -0600 11/10/00, Michael Burer wrote:
>I was reading in James this morning and came across the following
>phrase in 1:26: TOUTOU MATAIOS hH QRHSKEIA. MATAIOS appears
>to be a predicate adjective describing hH QRHSKEIA. Why do they not
>agree in gender? The feminine form of MATAIOS does occur
>elsewhere (e.g., 1 Cor 15:17).
>Michael Burer
>Ph.D. Student
>Dallas Theological Seminary

This is a pesky and inconsistent adjective; although many authors do use it
as a regular three-termination adjective (-IOS/-IA/-ION) yet both LSJ(G)
and BAGD note that some others do use it as a two-termination adjective
(-IOS m. & f., -ION n.). What the reason for this might be, I really don't
know and can only speculate; one conceivable reason is that there is an
older 3d declension 2-termination adjective MATAS/MATAN from the same root
and having the same meaning, and that the 2-termination status of the older
adjective has influenced the newer 1st & 2nd-declension adjective, although
most 2-termination first & second-declension adjectives are compounded
adjectives. Still, it's worth bearing in mind that the -OS/-ON declension
really has no essential association with masculine and/or neuter nouns and
that there are quite a few feminine nouns of the second or O-stem


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649

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