From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Nov 10 2000 - 17:53:42 EST
I really hope no one minds me continuing this discussion, because I really
am quite interested in understanding it.
In GGBB, the following statements are made by Dr. Wallace:
"Several ancient Greek writers (e.g., Protagoras, Aristotle, Dionysius,
Thrax) distinguished tense forms and described them in terms of time...it
does not seem too much to expect them to know whether their verb tenses
grammaticalized time." (pgs 509-510)
If Dr. Wallace is correct here, and if Porter is also correct, then the
Greek language evolved from an Aspectual/Temporal verbal system to an
Aspectual only one. What are the benefits of moving away from the
Aspectual/Temporal to the Aspectual only?
Finally, what is the nature of Modern Greek's verbal system? Does it contain
any element of temporal reference by itself?
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