[b-greek] None

From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@speedgate.net)
Date: Fri Nov 10 2000 - 20:48:36 EST

>At 8:01 AM -0600 11/10/00, Michael Burer wrote:
>>I was reading in James this morning and came across the following
>>phrase in 1:26: TOUTOU MATAIOS hH QRHSKEIA. MATAIOS appears
>>to be a predicate adjective describing hH QRHSKEIA. Why do they not
>>agree in gender? The feminine form of MATAIOS does occur
>>elsewhere (e.g., 1 Cor 15:17).
>>Michael Burer
>>Ph.D. Student
>>Dallas Theological Seminary

Carl Conrad wrote;

>This is a pesky and inconsistent adjective; although many authors do use it
>as a regular three-termination adjective (-IOS/-IA/-ION) yet both LSJ(G)
>and BAGD note that some others do use it as a two-termination adjective
>(-IOS m. & f., -ION n.). What the reason for this might be, I really don't
>know and can only speculate; one conceivable reason is that there is an
>older 3d declension 2-termination adjective MATAS/MATAN from the same root
>and having the same meaning, and that the 2-termination status of the older
>adjective has influenced the newer 1st & 2nd-declension adjective, although
>most 2-termination first & second-declension adjectives are compounded
>adjectives. Still, it's worth bearing in mind that the -OS/-ON declension
>really has no essential association with masculine and/or neuter nouns and
>that there are quite a few feminine nouns of the second or O-stem
Brooks and Winbery, Morphology, p. 85 list this adjective MATAIOS (A) ON
which means that it is sometimes used in the GNT as second declension only
and sometimes first and second declension.

It is definitely second declension only in Titus 3:9; James 1:26; and 1Pet.

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