[b-greek] Re: EN EKEINWi TWi KAIRWi = TOTE ???

From: Jason Hare (language_lover64801@yahoo.com)
Date: Sun Nov 12 2000 - 03:09:51 EST


Mark,

I am not suggesting that it was a divinely appointed time. Quite the
opposite. I am suggesting/questioning that KAIROS has lost its "appointed
time/season" flavor and been brought down to simply meaning "then" (well,
together with EN EKEINWi TWi...). Is it possible that KAIROS has lost its
normal timespan feel and been given a punctiliar sense? Could this be
based on the fact that Matthew may have written in Hebrew/Aramaic as his
original?

Regards,
Jason

----- Original Message -----
From: "Mark Wilson" <emory2oo2@hotmail.com>
To: <language_lover64801@yahoo.com>; <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, November 11, 2000 11:23 pm
Subject: Re: [b-greek] EN EKEINWi TWi KAIRWi = TOTE ???


>
>
>
> Jason:
>
> Concerning this:
>
> >Now, to the question at hand. In Matthew 11:25, I read EN EKEINWi TWi
> >KAIRWi (at that [appointed] time). I am wondering is this has the same
> >effect as TOTE (then, at that time).
>
>
> I don't think the emphasis is on a divinely "appointed" time.
>
> KAIROS may simply indicate a "specific" or "calculated moment." Hence,
> Matthew may simply be implying that Christ's prayer to the Father was
> articulated at that specific moment for a reason.
>
> If anything, I would understand KAIROS to draw attention to the
"specific"
> or "strategic" moment Christ prayed. In other words, why is the prayer
> articulated at that specific moment.
>
> My thoughts,
>
> Mark Wilson
>
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