From: Jason Hare (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Nov 12 2000 - 03:09:51 EST
I am not suggesting that it was a divinely appointed time. Quite the
opposite. I am suggesting/questioning that KAIROS has lost its "appointed
time/season" flavor and been brought down to simply meaning "then" (well,
together with EN EKEINWi TWi...). Is it possible that KAIROS has lost its
normal timespan feel and been given a punctiliar sense? Could this be
based on the fact that Matthew may have written in Hebrew/Aramaic as his
----- Original Message -----
From: "Mark Wilson" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: <email@example.com>; <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Sent: Saturday, November 11, 2000 11:23 pm
Subject: Re: [b-greek] EN EKEINWi TWi KAIRWi = TOTE ???
> Concerning this:
> >Now, to the question at hand. In Matthew 11:25, I read EN EKEINWi TWi
> >KAIRWi (at that [appointed] time). I am wondering is this has the same
> >effect as TOTE (then, at that time).
> I don't think the emphasis is on a divinely "appointed" time.
> KAIROS may simply indicate a "specific" or "calculated moment." Hence,
> Matthew may simply be implying that Christ's prayer to the Father was
> articulated at that specific moment for a reason.
> If anything, I would understand KAIROS to draw attention to the
> or "strategic" moment Christ prayed. In other words, why is the prayer
> articulated at that specific moment.
> My thoughts,
> Mark Wilson
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