[b-greek] Re: PORNEIA in the LXX

From: Stevens, Charles C (Charles.Stevens@unisys.com)
Date: Tue Nov 14 2000 - 14:13:56 EST

On 13 November 2000 at 7:54PM, Mark Wilson wrote:

<<As you are surely aware, PORNEIA was used in Matt. 5 and 19 to include

I'm not convinced of that interpretation. It seems to me that in both these
chapters PORNEIA is being described as an action on the part of a married
person that qualifies as MOIXEIA. IOW, I think "whoredom" on the part of a
married person qualifies as "adultery", but I do not see these passages as
proving that "adultery" can always be considered to be "whoredom" or that
all "whoredom" is "adultery".

I tend to think of MOIXEIA is basically "violation of the marriage
agreement/contract" and my working general sense of PORNEIA is something
like "lascivious behavior that is not occurring inside a marriage

I don't think all PORNEIA is MOIXEIA, nor do I think all MOIXEIA is PORNEIA,
in these passages or elsewhere.

        -Chuck Stevens

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