From: yochanan bitan-buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Fri Nov 17 2000 - 10:36:45 EST
>If one accepts Porter's proposition that Hellenistic
>Greek was Aspectual ONLY, then your logical conclusion
>above would indeed have to be the case. As I indicated
>earlier, Aristotle did indeed define his verbal system
>as including a temporal (CRONOS) quality. And Modern
>Greek is without dispute aspectual/temporal or
Yes, I think that Porter is wrong in making an absolute claim.
So it would be wrong to talk about this language
including tense, discarding it, and then reinstating it.
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