From: Cassian DelCogliano (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Nov 17 2000 - 15:50:36 EST
I have a question and a sub-question about the participles in Luke 15:4:
TIS ANQRWPOS EX hMWN *ECWN* hKATON PROBATA KAI *APOLESAS* EX AUTWN hEN OU
KATALEIPEI TA EVENHKONTA ENNEA EN TH EPHMW KAI POREUETAI EPI TO *APOLWLOS*
hEWS hEUPH AUTO;
Why does APOLWLOS, a second perfect *active* participle have a
middle/passive meaning when used intransitively? Or to put it another way,
why isn't the middle/passive participle used? The NT usage is consistent
(Mt 10:6, 15:24; Lk 15:4, 6, 24, 32 and 19:10). What are the
historical/grammatical reasons why an intransitive use of this verb was
employed in the perfect? Is the intransitive force 'middle', i.e. 'one who
has gotten himself lost' or 'passive', i.e. 'one who is lost'?
[Interestingly, the 87 uses of APOLLUMI in the NT break down as such (thank
(1) active + object: 39 (Jn 10:10 and Jam 4:12 have an clear 'understood'
object); the Vulgate consistently translated this with some form of
(2) middle/passive: 41; the Vulgate is consistent with 'pereo' in this
(3) active used intransitively: 7 (all second perfect active participles);
the Vulgate employs 'pereo'.]
My sub-question regards the interpretation of adverbial/circumstantial
participles linked with KAI, as with ECWN...KAI APOLESAS. Does the KAI
imply that *both* participles should be interpreted in the same way, i.e.
as relative clauses, concessives, conditionals, etc.? Or is the usage of
KAI in this case just one of those times when the genius of Greek language
cannot be literally translated into another language? Both the Vulgate and
the Sahidic render ECWN by a relative clause and APOLESAS by an
conditional. I think in this instance, I would prefer to render both
participles the same way, i.e. either as conditionals or relatives, but not
one of each. To me, the KAI seems to imply this. But I am overdoing it?
Any thought/comments much appreciated!
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