[b-greek] RE: John 20:28 and Smart's rule.

From: Alan B. Thomas (a_b_thomas@yahoo.com)
Date: Fri Feb 02 2001 - 09:55:14 EST

Dan Parker:

Regarding this...

Single possessive pronoun - both substantives arthrous
(Mk 6:21; 10:7,19; 16:7; Lk 2:23; 14:26; 18:20;
Jn 11:5; Eph 6:2; Ac 7:14; 10:24; Re 11:18)

This would be the closest category, of all those you
listed, that might parallel the John 20 passage.
However not one of these parallel it (Is Lk 2:23 a
typo??). I think you would want to dismiss all plurals
and those personal descriptions that are not lexically
related (as Iver said, mother and father are different
on a lexical basis alone, regardless of there
grammatical construct).

If it were not for the plural, I would not dispute
Acts 10:24 as a possible reference to the same group.
But again, plurals are also dismissed from other
rules, such as Granville's.

Also, I would seek to find oodles of extra-biblical
examples before presenting a grammatical construct as
a rule. I would be interested in seeing your results
after you do this. If it is to be taken seriously, be
sure that the parallels are EXACTLY as the John 20
passage... I think it critical to find singular
personal descriptions. (Otherwise, you might be pigeon
holed into a JW-type of scholarship where, for
example, ONLY JW's accept their interpretation of John


Alan B. Thomas

"Actually, there was no final "s" on "toward," but
now it's acceptable. Languages just change."

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