[b-greek] Re: Smart's less contrived than Sharp's

From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Mon Feb 05 2001 - 14:23:32 EST

In a message dated 02/04/2001 6:37:21 PM Pacific Standard Time,
musicke@ozemail.com.au writes:

<< The NT clearly uses the title "Lord Jesus Christ" but I can't see "Saviour
 Jesus Christ" as a title.
 David McKay >>


All you have actually done is give a list of references and then assert that
you do not believe they contain a compound proper name, in spite of the
similarities with other compound names used of Jesus. However, in all of the
above instances can we not agree that even if we do not view "Savior Jesus
Christ" as a compound proper name that "Jesus Christ" is appositionally
related to "Savior," and hence restricts its application to that *named*
person? The issue is whether the title "Savior" is by any means restricted to
a particular person. In this context there is no question that it most
certainly applies to "Jesus Christ." The is whether it also applies to "God,"
but the commonly used form of Sharp's rule cannot be used here to answer the
question, since most examples of GS do not have either noun in question
standing in an appositional relation to a proper name or as part of a
compound proper name. The pool of examples becomes much, much more limited
than what Wallace and others admit, as I reveal in my book.

The question involving the use of proper names and GS constructions is one
that speaks to the nouns' restricted application, but such restriction can be
communicated by a variety of means, either through quasi-proper names,
compound proper names, appositional restriction, and other means.

Best regards,

Greg Stafford

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