From: Mark Wilson (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Feb 06 2001 - 09:58:44 EST
>Hi, I have a question about the phrase in Phil 1:7 -- DIA TO EXEIN ME EN TH
>Specifically, I am wondering why ME and HUMAS are _both_ sing. acc? I know
>most versions trasnalate this to the effect of "because I have you in my
>heart", but in this case I would expect to ME in its genitive form TOU MOU.
>Given the fact that both both ME and HUMAS are the same case, what is basis
>for preferring "I have you in my heart" over and above "you have me in your
>heart"? I'm just wondering if someone can shed some light on this for me.
hUMAS is plural.
I think I recall reading that either translation is grammatically
acceptable, but it seems to me that if hUMAS is the subject, it is very
awkwardly placed. Am I right?
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