[b-greek] Re: Question about Phil 1:7

From: Iver Larsen (alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org)
Date: Wed Feb 07 2001 - 01:40:39 EST

> By now you will have realized that there is (almost) always an alternative
> viewpoint expressed on B-Greek on some issues. The present one is no
> exception. And as I noted, the ambiguity is there in any instance where
> there are two accusatives present, one of which must be the subject and the
> other the object of an infinitive. Iver Larsen argues that hUMAS is more
> likely the subject of the infinitive here and ME the object. I might have
> been inclined to agree on the basis that an enclitic ME following the
> infinitive suggests that ME is an object, but on the other hand, I don't
> think the ME is emphatic in any case (I think we would have had EME
> preceding the infinitive), and it is by no means uncommon for the
> accusative subject of an infinitive to follow that infinitive.

Thanks for reminding me of the EME. I did not intend to suggest that ME was
emphatic, and I cannot see that I said that.
It is certainly true that EME is emphatic. Just for my own understanding I
looked through the use of EME in the GNT (Excuse me for referring only to the
GNT, but that is what I can easily search on my computer set-up. I do not have
Accordancce. But as long as there are dozens of examples, the GNT corpus should
give a reasonable clue.) EME (because it is inherently emphatic) always
precedes a finite verb when it is the object of the verb, but when it is the
object of a participle it may follow the participle or occur between the article
and the participle. ME usually follows the verb of which it is the object, but
may be fronted to come before the verb. I suspect this would indicate a slight
emphasis, but less than with the use of the emphatic EME.

When I lean towards the NRSV, it is because of context.

Iver Larsen
Kolding, Denmark

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