From: Alan B. Thomas (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Feb 11 2001 - 16:59:25 EST
--- Michael Markey <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> I have a "Hebrew Greek Key Study Bible" published by
> AMG Publishers; in it, it says of the present
> participle: "The Present Participle ... expresses
> continuous or repeated action. It does not in
> indicate the time of the action, but when its
> relationship to the main verb is temporal, it
> signifies action contempoarary with that of the main
> verb. Example: "While they were eating (present
> participle),...he broke (the bread)" (Mk. 14:22)."
> My question is: does the present participle
> express *continuous* or *repeated action*?
No. The present participle would just indicate that he
broke bread at the time of their eating. The eating
need not be a "continuous" or "repeated" action.
It's hard to find any grammatical principle that
"always" holds true. I think the nature of language is
generally against such an idea. Languages are very
Hope that helps.
Alan B. Thomas
"Actually, there was no final "s" on "toward," but
now it's acceptable. Languages just change."
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