[b-greek] Negation

From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Thu Feb 15 2001 - 16:34:21 EST

 Again thank you all for responding to my question about negation in
Greek. The NWT translation of Philippians 2:6 made me realise that
negation is not as simple as I supposed. For it to work I thought that
the verb was negated, even though the negative particle comes before the
noun. People seem to agree that the verb can be negated when OU/MH comes
before another word, in fact OU/MH normally negates the verb. But if it
is a verb of thinking or being isn't negating it the same as negating
the whole clause? (Which in this case is the same as negating only the
noun.) My grammars don't seem to say anything about negation, so far I
just use logic and common sense but I definitely need to know more about
it. (By the way is the phrase 'in this case' used on B-Greek? It seems
it might cause confusion!)
 I should not have asked 'is this translation possible?', but rather,
'how does the grammar allow this translation?'. Looking closer, it seems
it depends less on what is being negated and more on whether 'TO EINAI
ISA QEWi' is an appositional infinitive defining the robbery. Even
though I am asking about negation in general, there were many questions
I had about the 'Christ-Hymn' which I dismissed as too theological to
ask here. Thank you Carl for the links to past discussions, as usual
I'll probably have all my questions answered without having to ask.
 Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)

Keith Thompson

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