From: Dave Washburn (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Feb 20 2001 - 20:47:56 EST
> Acts 2:14a
> STAQEIS DE hO PETOS SUN TOIS hENDEKA EPHREN THN QWNHN AUTOU KAI APEFQEGXATO
> Only a few verses earlier, Luke notes in verse 4 that KAQWS TO PNEUMA EDIDOU
> APOFQEGGESQAI AUTOIS.
> Would it seem that Luke is implying that the speech Peter stands up to give
> given in similar fashion as those earlier utterances of Acts 2, namely, was
> Peter "speaking in tongues" as he uttered this speech?
I tend to doubt it. The word simply means "something to say."
The only thing the word would possibly indicate is that the Spirit
was giving him the message, but he doesn't seem to be speaking
in tongues here. My own speculation is that Peter gave the
speech in either his native tongue or Greek, and the others, via
their speaking in tongues, translated the speech as it went along.
But I won't go to the wall for that idea :-)
"No study of probabilities inside a given frame can ever
tell us how probable it is that the frame itself can be
violated." C. S. Lewis
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